NEET Topic-wise & A
Topic 1: PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY
NEET: Previous Years Questions
01. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E. coli strain
(1) it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
(2) the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.
(3) it will lead to lysis of host cell.
(4) it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability. (NEET 2021)
✅ (1) it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
02. Choose the correct pair from the following:
(1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
(2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
(3) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
(4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments (NEET 2020)
✅ (3) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
03. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
Select the correct option from the following:
1 2 3 4
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (NEET 2020)
✅ (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
04. Which one of the following equipment is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes?
(1) BOD incubator
(2) Sludge digester
(3) Industrial oven
(4) Bioreactor (NEET 2019)
✅ (4) Bioreactor
05. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(1) Retrovirus
(2) Ti plasmid
(3) λ phage
(4) pBR322 (NEET 2018)
✅ (1) Retrovirus
06. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with
(1) acetocarmine
(2) aniline blue
(3) ethidium bromide
(4) bromophenol blue (NEET 2017)
✅ (3) ethidium bromide
07. DNA fragments are
(1) negatively charged
(2) neutral
(3) either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(4) positively charged (NEET 2017)
✅ (1) negatively charged
08. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as
(1) vector
(2) plasmid
(3) structural gene
(4) selectable marker (NEET 2017)
✅ (4) selectable marker
09. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move.
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves. (NEET 2017)
✅ (1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
10. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using
(1) EcoRI
(2) Taq polymerase
(3) polymerase III
(4) ligase (NEET-II 2016)
✅ (4) ligase
11. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
(1) SalI
(2) EcoRV
(3) XhoI
(4) HindIII (NEET-II 2016)
✅ (2) EcoRV
12. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
(1) Transferable
(2) Single-stranded
(3) Independent replication
(4) Circular structure (NEET-I 2016)
✅ (2) Single-stranded
13. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
(1) DNase I
(2) RNase
(3) Hind II
(4) Protease (NEET-I 2016)
✅ (3) Hind II
14. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
(1) purification of product
(2) addition of preservatives to the product
(3) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(4) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel (NEET-II 2016)
✅ (3) availability of oxygen throughout the process
15. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
(1) Bacillus subtilis
(2) Pseudomonas putida
(3) Thermus aquaticus
(4) Thiobacillus ferroxidans (NEET-I 2016)
✅ (3) Thermus aquaticus
Model Questions
16. The technique of using live organisms or their enzymes for products & processes useful to humans is called
(1) Bioinformatics
(2) Molecular biology
(3) Biotechnology
(4) Bionics
✅ (3) Biotechnology
17. The definition of Biotechnology as ‘the integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for products and services’ is given by
(1) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)
(2) European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)
(3) Biotechnology Innovation Organization (BIO)
(4) Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)
✅ (2) European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)
18. Biotechnology deals with
(1) Microbe-mediated processes.
(2) In vitro fertilization.
(3) Preparation of DNA vaccine.
(4) All the above.
✅ (4) All the above.
19. The two core techniques of modern biotechnology are
(1) Genetic engineering and Maintenance of sterile ambience.
(2) IVF and Preparation of DNA vaccine.
(3) Gene therapy and IVF.
(4) Microbe-mediated processes and Preparation of DNA vaccine.
✅ (1) Genetic engineering and Maintenance of sterile ambience.
20. The technique in which genetic material (DNA & RNA) is chemically altered and introduced into host organisms to change the phenotype is called
(1) Biotechnology
(2) Genetic engineering
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Genomics
✅ (2) Genetic engineering
21. A piece of alien DNA cannot multiply itself in the progeny cells of the organism because
(1) It has no the sequence called Origin of replication (ori) needed for starting replication.
(2) A piece of DNA will be denatured and damaged soon as it has no stability.
(3) A piece of DNA is easily unwound and the H bonds between nitrogen bases are broken.
(4) Both A & B.
✅ (1) It has no the sequence called Origin of replication (ori) needed for starting replication.
22. First recombinant DNA (rDNA) was produced in 1972 by two scientists namely
(1) Stanley Miller & Harold Urey
(2) Stanley Cohen & Robert Brown
(3) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer
(4) Stanley Miller & Herbert Boyer
✅ (3) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer
23. Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer isolated an antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a DNA piece from a plasmid and this gene was linked with a
(1) Native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Native plasmid of Escherichia coli
(3) Native plasmid of Salmonella typhi
(4) Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YAC)
✅ (1) Native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium
Topic 2: TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY
NEET: Previous Years Questions
24. Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
(1) 8 bp
(2) 6 bp
(3) 4 bp
(4) 10 bp (NEET 2024)
✅ (2) 6 bp
25. The following diagram shown restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y' genes:
(1) The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
(2) The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
(3) The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
(4) Gene 'X' is responsible for recognitions sites and 'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance. (NEET 2024)
✅ (2) The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
26. The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for
(1) Tumour inhibiting plasmid
(2) Tumor independent plasmid
(3) Tumor inducing plasmid
(4) Temperature independent plasmid (NEET 2024)
✅ (3) Tumor inducing plasmid
27. Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
(1) YAC
(2) pBR322
(3) Probe
(4) BAC (NEET 2023)
✅ (3) Probe
28. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show
(1) Bright blue colour
(2) Bright yellow colour
(3) Bright orange colour
(4) Bright red colour (NEET 2023)
✅ (3) Bright orange colour
29. In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of …………… metal are used.
(1) Zinc
(2) Tungsten or gold
(3) Silver
(4) Copper (NEET 2023)
✅ (2) Tungsten or gold
30. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
(1) Yellow bands
(2) Bright orange bands
(3) Dark red bands
(4) Bright blue bands (NEET 2021)
✅ (2) Bright orange bands
31. A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is
(1) Degenerate primer sequence
(2) Okazaki sequences
(3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(4) Poly (A) tail sequences (NEET 2021)
✅ (3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
32. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
(1) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(2) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
(3) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(4) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites. (NEET 2020)
✅ (3) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
33. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(1) Palindromic sequence
(2) Recognition site
(3) Selectable marker
(4) Ori site (NEET 2020)
✅ (4) Ori site
34. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is
(1) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
3' - GAATTC - 5'
(2) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(3) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(4) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
3' - CCTTGG - 5' (NEET 2020)
✅ (3)
35. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
(1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(2) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation (NEET 2020)
✅ (4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
36. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA. (NEET 2019)
✅ (2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
37. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(1) Retrovirus
(2) Ti plasmid
(3) phage
(4) pBR322 (NEET 2018)
✅ (1) Retrovirus
Model Questions
38. Which group of enzymes are known as ‘molecular scissors’?
(1) Exonucleases
(2) Endonucleases
(3) Restriction enzymes
(4) All above
✅ (4) All above
39. A group of enzymes which cut DNA at specific sites into fragments are called
(1) Hydrolases
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Nucleosidases
(4) Nucleotidases
✅ (2) Restriction enzymes
40. Restriction enzymes belong to a class of enzymes called
(1) Nucleases
(2) Ligases
(3) Hydrolases
(4) Endonucleases
✅ (1) Nucleases
41. Choose the false statement from the following:
(1) In 1963, two enzymes responsible for restricting growth of bacteriophage in E. coli were isolated. One enzyme added methyl groups to DNA. The other (restriction endonuclease) cut DNA.
(2) More than 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria.
(3) In the restriction enzyme EcoRI, ‘co’ represents the genus of the organism from which the enzyme was isolated.
(4) Endonucleases bind to specific recognition sequence of the DNA and cut the two strands at specific points.
✅ (3) In the restriction enzyme EcoRI, ‘co’ represents the genus of the organism from which the enzyme was isolated.
42. The first restriction endonuclease is
(1) Hind II
(2) EcoRI
(3) BamHI
(4) EcoRII
✅ (1) Hind II
43. Hind II cuts DNA molecules by recognizing a specific recognition sequence of
(1) 4 base pairs
(2) 6 base pairs
(3) 8 base pairs
(4) 10 base pairs
✅ (2) 6 base pairs
44. Which of the following is palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA?
(1) 5' —— CAATTC —— 3'
3' —— GTTAAG —— 5'
(2) 5' —— GAAATG —— 3'
3' —— CTTTAC —— 5'
(3) 5' —— GAATTC —— 3'
3' —— CTTAAG —— 5'
(4) 5' —— GTATAG —— 3'
3' —— CATATC —— 5'
✅ (3)
45. Restriction enzymes cut the DNA strand leaving single stranded overhanging stretches at the ends. They are called
(1) Marker gene
(2) Blunt ends
(3) Sticky ends
(4) Recognition sites
✅ (3) Sticky ends
46. The sticky ends of DNA strands formed by the action of restriction enzymes facilitates action of
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) DNA ligase
(3) RNA primase
(4) DNA helicase
✅ (2) DNA ligase
47. In recombinant DNA technology, DNA fragments are separated by a technique called
(1) Gel electrophoresis
(2) PCR
(3) Annealing
(4) Insertional inactivation
✅ (1) Gel electrophoresis
48. Which statement is correct regarding the figure given below?
(1) The figure represents PCR and Lane 2 to 4 represent migration of undigested DNA fragments.
(2) The figure represents PCR and Lanes 1 to 4 represent migration of digested DNA fragments.
(3) The figure represents Agarose gel electrophoresis and Lane 2 represents migration of undigested DNA fragments.
(4) The figure represents Agarose gel electrophoresis and Lane 1 represents migration of undigested DNA fragments.
✅ (4) The figure represents Agarose gel electrophoresis and Lane 1 represents migration of undigested DNA fragments.
49. During gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be seen as bright orange coloured bands when they are
(1) Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to IR radiation.
(2) Stained with methylene blue and exposed to UV radiation.
(3) Stained with methylene blue and exposed to IR radiation.
(4) Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV radiation.
✅ (4) Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV radiation.
50. After gel electrophoresis, DNA bands are cut out from agarose gel. This is called
(1) Elution
(2) Transformation
(3) Denaturation
(4) Annealing
✅ (1) Elution
51. A small price of DNA molecule that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cells is known as
(1) Marker gene
(2) Primer
(3) Cloning vector
(4) Ori
✅ (3) Cloning vector
52. Autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA of bacteria is called
(1) Marker gene
(2) Plasmids
(3) Cosmids
(4) BAC
✅ (2) Plasmids
53. Which of the following cloning vectors has very high copy numbers of their genome?
(1) Plasmids
(2) YAC
(3) Bacteriophages
(4) BAC
✅ (3) Bacteriophages
54. The function of a selectable marker is
(1) Eliminating transformants and permitting non-transformants
(2) Elimination of non-transformants and permitting transformants
(3) Identify ori site
(4) To destroy recognition sites
✅ (2) Elimination of non-transformants and permitting transformants
55. Select the wrong statement.
(1) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
(2) Selectable markers of E. coli include the genes encoding resistance to antibiotics like ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline etc.
(3) Normal E. coli cells have resistance against ampicillin, chloramphenicol etc.
(4) To link the alien DNA, the vector needs a single or very few recognition sites for restriction enzymes.
✅ (3) Normal E. coli cells have resistance against ampicillin, chloramphenicol etc.
56. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E. coli vector pBR322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain components?
(1) ori – original restriction enzyme
(2) rop – reduced osmotic pressure
(3) Hind III, Eco RI – selectable markers
(4) ampR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes
✅ (4) ampR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes
57. Which of the following has incorrect description?
(1) Non-transformants – No plasmid. They are not resistant to either tetracycline or ampicillin.
(2) Transformants with non-recombinant plasmid – They are resistant only to tetracycline.
(3) Transformants with recombinant plasmid – They are resistant only to ampicillin.
(4) Both a & b.
✅ (2) Transformants with non-recombinant plasmid – They are resistant only to tetracycline.
58. Select the wrong statement.
(1) Insertional inactivation is a technique in which a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, -galactosidase, to inactivate that enzyme.
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue colour colonies, if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert.
(3) Retroviruses in animals can transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
(4) In microinjection, cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
✅ (4) In microinjection, cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
59. The vector for T-DNA is
(1) Thermus aquaticus
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis
✅ (3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
60. Which is most correct statement regarding Agrobacterium tumifaciens?
(1) It is a pathogen of many dicot plants that can deliver a piece of DNA to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
(2) It is a pathogen of many monocot plants that can deliver a piece of RNA to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
(3) It is a pathogen of many animals that can deliver a piece of DNA to transform normal animal cells into a tumor.
(4) It is a pathogen of many dicot plants that can deliver a piece of RNA to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
✅ (1) It is a pathogen of many dicot plants that can deliver a piece of DNA to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
61. In order to induce bacterial uptake of plasmids, the bacteria are made competent by first treating with
(1) Sodium chloride
(2) Potassium chloride
(3) Magnesium chloride
(4) Calcium chloride
✅ (4) Calcium chloride
62. Biolistics (gene gun) is suitable for
(1) Disarming pathogen vectors
(2) Transformation of plant cells
(3) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
(4) DNA fingerprinting
✅ (2) Transformation of plant cells
63. For transformation, micro-articles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
(1) Silver or platinum
(2) Platinum or zinc
(3) Silicon or platinum
(4) Gold or tungsten
✅ (4) Gold or tungsten
Topic 3: PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY
NEET: Previous Years Questions
64. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?
A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.
E. It shows ability to replicate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) D and E only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and E only (NEET 2024)
✅ (3) B and C only
65. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product
(2) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
(3) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures
(4) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system foam control system (NEET 2024)
✅ (3) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures
66. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell
B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, A, B, D
(2) C, B, D, A
(3) B, D, A, C
(4) B, C, D, A (NEET 2023)
✅ (4) B, C, D, A
67. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out
(1) DNA
(2) Histones
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) RNA (NEET 2023, 2021)
✅ (1) DNA
68. The correct order of steps in PCR is
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (NEET 2021, 2018)
✅ (4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
69. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
(1) Annealing
(2) Extension
(3) Denaturation
(4) Ligation (NEET 2021)
✅ (3) Denaturation
70. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with
(1) Isopropanol
(2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Methanol at room temperature
(4) Chilled chloroform (NEET 2019)
✅ (2) Chilled ethanol
71. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called
(1) downstream processing
(2) bioprocessing
(3) postproduction processing
(4) upstream processing (NEET 2017)
✅ (1) downstream processing
72. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
(1) Separation
(2) Purification
(3) Preservation
(4) Expression (NEET-II 2016)
✅ (4) Expression
Model Questions
73. Match the tissues/molecules mentioned in column I with those of their degrading enzymes mentioned in column II and select the correct option.
(1) A- ii, B- i, C- iv, D- iii
(2) A- iv, B- iii, C- i, D- ii
(3) A- iii, B- iv, C- ii, D- i
(4) A- ii, B- iv, C- i, D- iii
✅ (2) A- iv, B- iii, C- i, D- ii
74. For the isolation of genetic material, bacterial cell wall is broken using the enzyme called
(1) Cellulase
(2) Chitinase
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Protease
✅ (3) Lysozyme
75. When ……………… is added, purified DNA precipitates out as a collection of fine threads in the suspension.
(1) Chilled ethanol
(2) Chilled H2SO4
(3) Chilled glycerol
(4) Chilled NaOH
✅ (1) Chilled ethanol
76. Which one of the following statements is wrong with respect to separation of DNA fragments on gel electrophoresis?
(1) Gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.
(2) The DNA fragments move towards cathode under electric field through the matrix.
(3) The smaller DNA fragments move farther.
(4) The commonly used matrix is agarose gel.
✅ (2) The DNA fragments move towards cathode under electric field through the matrix.
77. After cutting the source DNA and vector DNA, the cut-out gene of interest from source DNA and cut vector are joined using the enzyme
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) Nuclease
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Ligase
✅ (4) Ligase
78. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technology is used for
(1) DNA identification
(2) DNA repair
(3) DNA amplification
(4) DNA cleavage
✅ (3) DNA amplification
79. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(1) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
(2) It serves as selectable marker.
(3) It is isolated from a virus.
(4) It remains active at high temperature.
✅ (4) It remains active at high temperature.
80. Amplification of gene of interest by using DNA polymerase may go up to
(1) 0.1 million copies
(2) 1.0 million copies
(3) 1.0 billion copies
(4) 1.0 trillion copies
✅ (3) 1.0 billion copies
81. In PCR technology, amplification of gene of interest I catalyzed by an enzyme called
(1) Reverse transcriptase
(2) Taq polymerase
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) RNA primase
✅ (2) Taq polymerase
82. In PCR, the process annealing means
(1) The heating of target DNA at high temperature (94° C) to separate the strands.
(2) The joining of the two primers at 52°C at the 3’ end of the DNA templates.
(3) The addition of nucleotides to the primer with the help of Taq polymerase.
(4) The separation of DNA strands by adding NaOH.
✅ (2) The joining of the two primers at 52°C at the 3’ end of the DNA templates.
83. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of PCR. Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents.
(1) B- Denaturation at a temperature of about 98° C separating the two DNA strands.
(2) A- Denaturation at a temperature of about 50° C.
(3) C- Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase.
(4) A- Annealing with two sets of primers.
✅ (1) B- Denaturation at a temperature of about 98° C separating the two DNA strands.
84. The aim of recombinant DNA technology is to produce a desirable
(1) Lipid
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Protein
(4) Vitamins
✅ (3) Protein
85. The vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted to specific products, enzymes etc. using microbial plant, animal or human cells are called
(1) Bioreactors
(2) Gene gun
(3) PCR
(4) HPLC
✅ (1) Bioreactors
86. Bioreactors are useful in
(1) Separation and purification of a product
(2) Processing of large volumes of culture
(3) Amplification of genes
(4) Isolation of genetic material
✅ (2) Processing of large volumes of culture
87. Stirred-tank bioreactor have been designed for
(1) Purification of product.
(2) Addition of preservatives to the product.
(3) Availability of oxygen throughout the process.
(4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.
✅ (3) Availability of oxygen throughout the process.
88. The simple Stirred-tank bioreactor has
(1) An agitator system
(2) An oxygen delivery system
(3) Temperature and pH control systems
(4) All the above
✅ (4) All the above
89. A series of processes such as separation and purification of products after the biosynthetic stage is called
(1) Bioprocessing
(2) Downstream processing
(3) Postproduction processing
(4) Upstream processing
✅ (2) Downstream processing